CMV: For Japan to be apologetic towards its WWII war crimes, JCP would have needed to be in control in the 1940s-50s [Inspired by this comment on /r/japannews, which touches on the common topic on why Japan has never been **fully** apologetic for its World War II war crimes.](https://www.reddit.com/r/japannews/comments/1sxl18x/chinese_propaganda_talks_about_revival_of/oipkk3n/) (EDIT: Emphasis on **fully** - something I forgot to mention in the title here.) This is also in addition to the related issue of xenophobia/racism frequently brought up in foreigner-dominated Japan subs, to which their Tokugawa-era isolationism can be, honestly, be blamed for that (but that, as well as those subs' fixation with that issue, are whole side topics for this CMV). Combine this with the frequently asked alternate history question/situation of "what if Hirohito was executed?" and one of the common answers being the rise of Japanese Communist Party (JCP) into power (which was a reason why the U.S.…